Posted by Wadi on February 16, 2003 at 04:17:41:
If a nation has been adhering and recognizing a customary international law since it's formation, then that nation breaks up into 2 or more new sovereigns (e.g., Yugoslavia Federation becomes several new states), and from the outset, one of the new states does not observe the custom at all, are they a persistent objector and not bound? Or are they somehow bound to the custom by succesorship?
Your help if you have insights is appreciated.