Posted by sevic wolf on January 31, 2003 at 17:10:16:
Hello,
for a seminar paper I have to work on a very tricky problem and wonder whether someone out where has heard of a similar case or can recommend literature or even give some insights.
The situation is as follows. State A is a member of an international organisation O (with legal personality). O has concluded a treaty with C. Now A acts in a way towards C which obstructs the treaty and basically leaves the treaty between O and C void. Is there any chance for C to hold A directly liable for the breach of the treaty? I’d be very grateful for any advice on the matter,
Thanx, Sevic